Perception: The writers of the Gospel relied on Greek

Now Jesus came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up, and went into the synagogue on the Sabbath day, as was his custom. He stood up to read, and the scroll of the prophet Isaiah was given to him. He unrolled the scroll and found the place where it was written,

“The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he has anointed me to proclaim good news to the poor. He has sent me to proclaim release to the captives and the regaining of sight to the blind, to set free those who are oppressed, to proclaim the year of the Lord’s favor.” - Luke 4:16-20

Notice the part I bolded and italisized. This is Isaiah 61:1-3 (well sort of.) Here is what the Hebrew says:

1. The spirit of the Lord God was upon me, since the Lord anointed me to bring tidings to the humble, He sent me to bind up the broken-hearted, to declare freedom for the captives, and for the prisoners to free from captivity.
2. To declare a year of acceptance for the Lord and a day of vengeance for our God, to console all mourners.
3. To place for the mourners of Zion, to give them glory instead of ashes, oil of joy instead of mourning, a mantle of praise instead of a feeble spirit, and they shall be called the elms of righteousness, the planting of the Lord, with which to glory.

Do you notice a difference? The Hebrew doesn't contain the phrase "regaining of sight to the blind" anywhere in it. So where did that come from? The Greek Septuagint, which was translated by non-Jews, contains this phrase. Why is it in there when the original Hebrew does not have it? Who knows why it was added, but it is, and it is not supposed to be there. Why is it relevant? Because it means that in the passages from Luke I quoted, JC wasn't reading the original Hebrew, but rather a mistranslated Greek version. There are many problems with this. First, a translation would never, ever be read in a synagogue. But if some reason he was reading a translation, if he was "G-d in the flesh" [sic], he should have seen that he was reading a mistranslation, and corrected it.

So why is this relevant? Because Judaism has always stated that the prophecies that JC allegedly fulfilled come from looking to the Septuagint for reference, and finding the mistranslations, and forming a religion based on it. This is further proof that whomever wrote this story, was using a greek mistranslation of the Tanach to reference the "prophecies", and not the original hebrew. So why should we believe the writings of someone that couldn't even read the original hebrew, and made mistakes because they referenced non-existant prophecies?

This is just further proof that the events of the NT were fabricated and written by either non-Jews or hellenized Jews, who had little to no knowledge of Torah and Judaism.